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testking cisco 642-164 v9.5 question 64

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64q&a 
1. Where do you enable the CRS engine?
A. Publisher Activation page
B. Component Activation page
 
C. Cluster Setup page  
D. Server Setup page  
 Answer: B

2. When a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?
A. Timeout
B. SQL Error
C. Successful
D. Connection Not Available
 Answer: C

 

3. What three tasks are required to add a CRS application? (Choose three.)  
A. create a trigger
B. create an application
 
C. restart the CRS engine
 
D. upload script to repository
 
E. configure default session timeout
 
 Answer: ABD

 

4. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose
two.)
A. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources
 
B. User Tracking to track IP telephones
 
C. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
 
D. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
 
E. Problem alerts for operations personnel
 
 Answer: DE

 

5. When would the Cisco Supervisor Desktop fail to show an agent that is logged in?  
A. The agent is not ready.
B. The agent is not on a call.
 
C. The agent is an IP phone agent.
 
D. The agent is not in the team currently being viewed by the supervisor.  
Answer: D

6. Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
 
A. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration
 
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management
 
C. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
 
D. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation
 
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem
 Answer: D

7. What is a benefit of using subflows?
A. decreases the amount of flows
B. collects information about callers to agents
 
C. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting
 
D. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server
 
E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows
 
Answer: E

8. What formula do you use to calculate the number of Voice Gateway ports?  
A. Erlang A
B. Erlang B
C. Erlang C
D. IVR ports + agent phones
 Answer: B

 

 9. Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
 
A. resources
 
B. Skill Groups
 
C. Resource Groups  
D. competence levels  
 Answer: A

10. When using the Call Subflow step, can variables be shared between the parent (calling) flow and the subflow?
 
A. No.
B. Yes.
C. Yes, but they must be manually passed via input and output mapping.
 
D. Yes, but they must be manually created in both flows and have the same name.  
Answer: C

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11. Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
B. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resourc
C. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected

Answer: C

12. Which phone type has the following support matrix for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?

version 4.0 unsupported
version 4.5 supported
version 5.0 supported
A. SIP

B. H.323

C. MGCP
D. SCCP
Answer: A

13. What types of orders are exempt from using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool?

A. orders for coresident deployments
B. orders for adding more seats
C. orders for upgrading from standard
D. orders with less than five seats
E. all orders require using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool
Answer: E

14. What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?
A. Alarm and Trace Configuration
B. debug session
C. script validation
D. script refresh
Answer: B

15. When a call terminates, which Cisco Unified CCX setting takes precedence over “Automated Available” to
determine the agent’s next state?
A. Automatic Work
B. Automatic WrapUp
C. Prompt for this CSQ
D. Service Level settings
E. Resource Pool selection
Answer: A
16. Which feature is added when upgrading from the Enhanced to Premium Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. sending email
B. a wrap-up timer

C. keystroke macros

D. supervisory recording

E. agent-to-agent text chatting

Answer: A

17. Which criterion can be used to control the actions of supervisor workflows?
A. average talk duration
B. number of agents logged in

C. number of calls abandoned

D. duration of oldest call in queue

Answer: D

18. What does CSQ stand for in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Contact Skill Queue
B. Common Skill Queue

C. Contact Service Queue

D. Common Service Queue

E. Competence Skill Queue

F. Competence Service Queue

Answer: C

19. Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment scenario is valid?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.0
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.1
C. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.5 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.3
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 5.0
Answer: B

20. What issues notification messages for CRS engine errors?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. syslog
Answer: A

21. How many languages can be installed for the Cisco Agent Desktop (CAD) and the Cisco Supervisor Desktop

(CSD)?

A. one language for both the CAD and the CSD

B. one language for the CAD and a different language for the CSD C.
two languages for the CAD and one language for the CSD
D. two languages for both the CAD and the CSD
Answer: A

22. What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?

A. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route

Point in CallManager.

D. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.

E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.
Answer: C

23. The CRS Installer is used to perform which functions? (Choose three.)
A. install CRS software
B. back up CRS data

C. repair a CRS installation

D. back up CallManager data

E. remove a CRS installation (uninstall)
F. activate CRS components
Answer: ACE

24. In a high availability scenario, what is the longest expected downtime for a Cisco Agent Desktop failover?

A. 10 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Answer: D

25. How is the default e-mail address in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send E-mail step as a bcc.
B. It automatically receives alarms generated by the Cisco CRS Server. C.
It is used if no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step.
D. It becomes the From address in the Send E-Mail step if no address is specified.
Answer: D

26. In addition to writing information to a trace file, the Cisco CRS System sends standard
event logging messages to a syslog server through which service?
A. SNMP Trap

B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. Win32
Answer: B

27. In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony
group?
A. CTI Ports

B. CRS CTI Route Point

C. CRS Call Control Group

D. Communications Manager Call Control Group

Answer: A

28. Which three server types are supported for the installation of Cisco CRS? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco MCS 78xx servers

B. Dell PowerEdge servers

C. HP DL Cisco certified servers

D. Acer Altos servers

E. IBM xSeries Cisco certified servers

F. Apple servers

Answer: ACE

29. Which server or servers combine with redundant Cisco CRS engines to make a valid Cisco CRS 4.0 deployment?

A. five recording servers

B. a simplex database server

C. five simplex VoIP monitoring servers

D. two VoIP monitoring servers and three recording servers

Answer: C

30. Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)

A. DB Get
B. DB Read
C. DB Write
D. DB Release

Answer: BC

31. Where are users managed and their data stored in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?

A. in Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact
Center Express database
B. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database

C. in Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Communications Manager Express database

D. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Communications Manager Express database

Answer: B

32. Which three components are installed from the Cisco CRS Installer media? (Choose three.)

A. iPlanet Web Server

B. Cisco CRS Engine

C. Cisco IP Telephony Windows 2000 Server OS
D. Cisco Unified CallManager
E. Cisco Recording F. MS SQL Server
Answer: BEF

33. In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
B. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration

C. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Administrator

D. in resource configuration on Application Administration

Answer: C

34. Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco

Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. No special configuration is needed.
B. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile.

C. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI

ports.

D. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP

address.
Answer: D

35. Which two releases require physical media to be ordered and received prior to patching or upgrading Cisco
Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose two.)
A. Minor Release
B. Major Release
C. Service Release
D. Engineering Special
E. Maintenance Release
Answer: AB

36. What formula do you use to calculate the number of agents in a Call Center?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C

C. AHT * BHCA

D. VG ports + IVR ports

Answer: B

37. Which step library is included in the license for Cisco Unified CCX Standard?
A. ICM steps
B. e-mail steps

C. media steps

D. database steps

Answer: C

38. Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express v. 5.0?
A. a two-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Communications Manager cluster
B. a one-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Communication Manager clusters
C. a one-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Communication Manager Express router
D. two Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Communications Manager
cluster
Answer: B

39. If an existing script is uploaded to the CRS, what does it ask?
A. Do you want to debug the script?
B. Do you want to refresh the script?

C. Do you want to save the application?

D. Do you want to return to Script Management?
Answer: B

40. What tool is used to estimate the hardware server resources required for an IPCC Express deployment?

A. IPC Resource Calculator

B. CTI Port Calculator

C. Configuration and Ordering Tool
D. CRS Applications Administration
Answer: C

41. If the Call Redirect step sends a caller to a device that does not exist in the CallManager, which branch of the
step is executed?
A. Busy

B. Invalid

C. Successful

D. Unsuccessful

Answer: B

42. What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Express deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 100 agents
D. 300 agents
CertBible Answer: B

43. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Repair button in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0
Installation Wizard?

A. recover or restore a Cisco CRS system
B. reinstall the same version of Cisco CRS on top of the currently installed version
C. remove a version of Cisco CRS that the user had attempted but failed to remove previously
D. repair the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster associated with this Cisco CRS system

CertBible Answer: A

44. For which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 packages is the preview outbound dialer available?

A. Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager packages

B. Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express packages

C. Enhanced and Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager packages

D. Enhanced and Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Unified Communications Manager

Express packages

CertBible Answer: A

45. What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?
A. The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
B. The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration.
C. The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.
D. The variable can be used in conditional steps.
E. The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.
CertBible Answer: B

46. Which feature is available on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 with Cisco Unified Communication
Manager Express deployments?
A. wrap-up data
B. high availability
C. preview outbound dialer
D. barge-in on Cisco Supervisor Desktop
CertBible Answer: A

47. What is the Flush Input Buffer setting used for in the Input tab of the Menu step?
A. to release memory held by the prompt variable
B. to clear the value of the menu choice before the prompt is played

C. to prevent the previous value from being used again on the menu choice

D. to prevent the caller from entering a menu choice before the prompt has played

CertBible Answer: B

48. Which interface is used to configure debug parameters for log files?
A. Datastore Control Center
B. Alarm and Trace Configuration

C. Custom File Configuration

D. Control Center

CertBible Answer: B

49. You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with three requirements:
250 configured agents
150 agents maximum logged in at any given time
30 agents able to make outbound calls
How many seats should be purchased?
A. 120 seats with 30 outbound seats
B. 150 seats with 30 outbound seats
C. 180 seats with 30 outbound seats
D. 250 seats with 30 outbound seats
CertBible Answer: B

50. What is the maximum number of CTI ports supported by a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 Standard
deployment?
A. 150

B. 200

C. 300

D. varies based on the number of expansion servers

E. varies based on the number of configured applications

CertBible Answer: C

51. A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment must have the following characteristics:
High Availability

Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0
two remote sites
agent pool split evenly between both sites
3 concurrent supervisors
20 concurrent agents
agents using Cisco IP Phone Agent and Citrix terminals
silent monitoring and recording in use
no historical reporting during call center open hours
What is the minimum number of servers needed to support this configuration?
A. two servers
B. three servers
C. four servers
D. five servers
E. six servers

F. the answer depends on where the supervisors are located

CertBible Answer: C

52. Which step is designed to prompt a user to press or say a single-digit number to perform a specific function?

A. Menu

B. Get Digit String

C. Get Call Contact Info

D. Extended Get Digit String

CertBible Answer: A
53. What allows you to monitor the system performance of the Cisco CRS System (CPU, memory, etc.)?
A. Cisco Desktop Administrator
B. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
C. Microsoft Windows 2000 Performance Monitoring
D. CRS Application Administration
E. CRS Application Editor
CertBible Answer: C

54. Which three feature enhancements are included in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0
Supervisor

Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. graphical reports
B. multi-tab browsers
C. dockable windows
D. URL push to agents
CertBible Answer: ACD

55. A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?
A. a CTI port to the customer
B. the agent line to the customer
C. the agent’s personal line to the customer
D. a CTI port to the agent, then redirected to the customer
CertBible Answer: B

56. Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications?
(Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit

B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option

C. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG

D. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service platform

E. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server

CertBible Answer: CD

57. How is product licensing stored and viewed in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0?

A. stored in LDAP, viewed in Cisco CRS License Update Utility

B. stored in LDAP, viewed in Cisco CRS Application Administration

C. stored in local files, viewed in Cisco CRS License Update Utility

D. stored in local files, viewed in Cisco CRS Application Administration

CertBible Answer: B

58. What is the maximum number of agents supported for CCM co-resident installations?
A. 5
B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

CertBible Answer: B

59. The use of 7845-I2 or 7845-H2 servers allows Cisco Unified CCX 5.0 to support more of which of the following?
A. agents

B. IVR ports

C. VXML ports

D. simultaneous reporting sessions

CertBible Answer: D

60. An Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 deployment requires support for 20 concurrently logged-in
agents. The agents are split across two remote sites, and the high-availability Cisco CRS Engine, Database Server,
VoIP Monitoring, and Recording server processes run at a central data center. The agents will be using CAD with
Cisco Unified IP Phone 7960G and end-point monitoring. Very little recording and silent monitoring will be
performed, and no historical reporting will be done during call center open hours. Assume the minimum number
of servers is desired.

How many Cisco Unified Contact Center Express hardware servers would be required for this Cisco Unified

Contact Center Express deployment?
A. 1
B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

www.HelpY

www.HelpY

CertBible Answer: B

61. What is the main function of the CRS Editor?

A. manages the CRS Server

B. creates CRS Engine reports

C. creates application scripts for call flows
D. remotely manages the LDAP Directory
CertBible Answer: C

62. In the Expression Editor panel of CRS Script Editor, why would you use the Java tab? (Choose three.)

A. to execute a specified method of a Java class

B. to reference a variable or invoke a method of a custom Java Object

C. to pass variables between two different workflows

D. to create an object for the purpose of executing methods on a remote computer

E. to get a reference to the Contact and Session states

F. to allow for arguments to be passed to a specified method
CertBible Answer: ABF

63. What should you set the Client Configuration to when configuring the ODBC Data Source for the Database
Subsystem?
A. TCP
B. IP
C. Multiprotocol
D. Named Pipes
E. NWLink IPX
F. SPX
CertBible Answer: A

64. In the CRS Application Editor, where do you start the debugger?
A. toolbar
B. Step palette

C. Design window
D. Variable window
CertBible Answer: A

65. An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting. Then, using a
keystroke macro, they want to pop the account number into the account number field in the agent’s CRM desktop
application. The keystroke macro will also initiate the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from
the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record. Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost
solution, what product does this organization need for this capability?
A. IPCC Express Standard
B. IPCC Express Enhanced
C. IPCC Express Premium
D. IPCC Enterprise
E. IP IVR
CertBible Answer: B

66. How can you configure the Prompt step to play different prompts following subsequent timeouts or retries?

A. Configure it as a Generated Prompt.

B. Configure it as a Random Container Prompt.

C. Configure it as an Escalating Container Prompt.

D. Configure it as a Concatenated Container Prompt.
CertBible Answer: C

67. By which ways does remote monitoring allow the monitored call to be selected? (Choose two.)

A. Agent Name

B. Agent Extension

C. application ID

D. Media Group ID
E. CSQ ID
CertBible Answer: BE

68. Which action blocks further inbound and preview outbound calls when an agent is presented with a preview
outbound call?
A. Skip

B. Reject

C. Reject-close

D. Cancel Reservation

CertBible Answer: D

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