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Exam Number: 642-515
Associated Certifications: CCSP
Duration: 75 minutes (65-75 questions)
Available Languages: English
Click Here to Register: Pearson VUE
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Exam Tutorial: Review type of exam questions

QUESTION 1:
Of the following choices, which could an attacker use during the propagate phase of
an attack?
A. Ping scans
B. Crash systems
C. Attack other targets
D. Erase files
E. Steal data
F. Penetrate systems
G. All of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
The different phases of an attack are shown in the diagram below:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/hk/learning/security_day/files/outbreak_prevention_soln_nac_csa.pdf
QUESTION 2:
A hacker has penetrated a network and now wants to reside on host. Which one of
the five phases of an attack attempts to become resident on a target?
A. Probe phase
B. Penetrate phase
C. Persist phase
D. Propagate phase
E. Paralyze phase
Answer: C
Explanation:
The system attack cycle consists of 5 phases described below:
1. Vulnerable targets are identified in the probe phase. The goal of this phase is to find
computers that can be subverted.
2. Exploit code is transferred to the vulnerable target in the penetrate phase. The goal of
this phase is to get the target executing the exploit code through some attack vector like a
buffer overflow.
3. When an exploit has been successful, the exploit code tries to make itself persistent on
the target. The goal of the persist phase is to ensure that the attacker’s code will be
running and available to the attacker even if the target system reboots.
4. When an attacker has access to the organization’s network, it extends the attack to
other targets. The propagate phase looks for vulnerable neighboring devices to which it
can spread the exploit code.
5. Only in the paralyze phase is damage done. Files are erased, systems fail, and
distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks are launched.

Reference:
www.cisco.com/application/pdf/en/us/guest/products/ps5057/c1244/cdccont_0900aecd800ae55e.pdf
QUESTION 3:
Which two attacks could an attacker use on network during the probe phase of an
attack? (Choose two)
A. Buffer overflow
B. Install new code
C. Ping scans
D. Erase files
E. Port scans
Answer: C, E
Explanation:
The system attack cycle consists of 5 phases described below:
1. Vulnerable targets are identified in the probe phase. The goal of this phase is to find
computers that can be subverted.
2. Exploit code is transferred to the vulnerable target in the penetrate phase. The goal of
this phase is to get the target executing the exploit code through some attack vector like a
buffer overflow.
3. When an exploit has been successful, the exploit code tries to make itself persistent on
the target. The goal of the persist phase is to ensure that the attacker’s code will be
running and available to the attacker even if the target system reboots.
4. When an attacker has access to the organization’s network, it extends the attack to
other targets. The propagate phase looks for vulnerable neighboring devices to which it
can spread the exploit code.
5. Only in the paralyze phase is damage done. Files are erased, systems fail, and
distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks are launched.

Reference:
www.cisco.com/application/pdf/en/us/guest/products/ps5057/c1244/cdccont_0900aecd800ae55e.pdf
QUESTION 4:
A CSA Query User window has popped up on a Certkiller user’s PC. What are the
three options that can be given to a user when a Query User window appears?
(Choose three)
A. Allow
B. Accept
C. Deny
D. Kill
E. Terminate
F. Block
Answer: A, C, E

The Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent exam 642-515 SNAA is one of the optional exams associated with the Cisco Certified Security Professional certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and ability to describe, configure, and verify the Cisco Security Agent product.
Interactive Testing Engine Included!

69 Questions
Updated : 03/14/2008
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Exam Number/Code: 640­-822
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1

Exam : Cisco 640­-822

Title :

Interconnecting Cisco Networking

Devices Part 1

Update : Demo

QUESTION 1:
Which one of the following characteristics is true regarding the use of hubs and
switches?
A. Hubs can have their ports be configured with VLANs
B. Using hubs is costly with regard to bandwidth availability.
C. Switches can not forward broadcasts.
D. Switches are more efficient than hubs in processing frames.
E. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.
Answer: E
Explanation: Switches increases the number of collisions domains in the network.
Switches that are configured with VLANs will reduce the size of the collision
domains by increasing the number of collision domains in a network, but making
them smaller than that of one big, flat network.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are capable of VLAN configurations, but hubs are not.
B. Hubs are generally the least costly method possible to connect multiple devices
together in a network.
C. Switches forward broadcasts and multicasts, by default, to all ports within the same
VLAN. Only routers block all broadcast traffic by default.
D. Switches and hubs can be equally efficient in processing frames, in theory. In practice,
switches are generally more efficient as they usually have more CPU and memory
allocated to them, and are generally much more expensive than a simple hub.
QUESTION 2:
When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges
and switches, which of the following are valid statements? Choose all the valid
answer choices)
A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports.
B. A switch is a multiport bridge,
C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of
each frame received.
D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not.
E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.
F. None of the above statements are true.
Answer: B, C

Explanation:
Both bridges and switches build the bridge table by listening to incoming frames and
examining the source MAC address in the frame.
Switches are multiport bridges that allow you to create multiple broadcast domains. Each
broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within a switch.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are generally faster than bridges. Bridges also do not necessarily have fewer
ports than switches.
D. Both bridges and switches will forward broadcast and multicast traffic, assuming that
the traffic remains in the same VLAN.
E. The use of VLANs in a switch can decrease the size of the collision domain, by
creating additional, smaller collision domains.
QUESTION 3:
Which of the following correctly describe the various functions and virtues of a
router? (Select all valid answer choices)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
G. None of the above
Answer: A, C, F
Explanation:
The main function of a router is to connect different, separated networks together. In
doing so, switching packets from one network to another is a primary function, along
with providing for communication between networks. As an additional feature, routers
are capable of providing filtering on a network address and application port level, so
choice C is also correct.
Incorrect Answers:
B. Routers can indeed be used to segment a network separate a collision domain, since
routers do not forward LAN broadcasts and multicasts to other interfaces. However,
routers alone can not prevent all collisions from occurring on any given LAN segment.
D. Routers actually segment LANs into smaller broadcast domains.
E. Routers do not forward broadcast and multicast traffic out the additional interfaces by
default. Unless bridging or IP helpers are configured on the router, LAN broadcasts are
blocked at the router level.

QUESTION 4:
The LAN needs are expanding at the Certkiller corporate office, which is quickly
growing. You are instructed to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment on
the Certkiller network.
Which of the following are layer 1 devices that you can use? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A switch
B. A router
C. A network adapter card
D. A hub
E. A repeater
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
A hub simply repeats the electrical signal and makes no attempt to interpret the electrical
signal (layer 1) as a LAN frame (Layer 2). So, a hub actually performs OSI layer 1
functions, repeating an electrical signal, whereas a switch performs OSI layer 2
functions, actually interpreting Ethernet header information, particularly addresses, to
make forwarding decisions. Hubs can be used to increase the number of stations that can
be supported on a LAN.
Because the repeater does not interpret what the bits mean, but does examine and
generate electrical signals, a repeater is considered to operate at Layer 1. Repeaters can
be used to physically extend the LAN to greater distances.
QUESTION 5:
Cisco is the leader in the router market space. What basic functions do their routers
perform in a network? (Choose two)
A. The microsegmentation of broadcast domains
B. Path selection
C. Packet switching
D. Bridging between LAN segments
E. Access layer security
F. VLAN membership assignment
G. Application optimization
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The primary functions of a router are: Packet Switching and Path Selection. It is the

routers job to determine the best method for delivering the data, and switching that data
as quickly as possible.
QUESTION 6:
The Certkiller network administrator needs to determine what LAN devices to
install on the Certkiller network. What are two advantages of using Layer 2
Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two)
A. Allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
B. Increasing the size of broadcast domains
C. Increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices
D. Filtering frames based on MAC addresses
E. Decreasing the number of collision domains
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
A: A half duplex connection is where only one device can send or receive at a time. A
full duplex connection is where both devices can send and receive at the same time.
Thus, if you have a 100Mb half-duplex connection, only sending at 100Mb OR receiving
at 100Mb can happen at the same time. If you have a 100Mb full duplex connection, you
can effectively get 200Mb out of the link because you could be sending 100Mb and
receiving 100Mb at the same time.
D: Switches are capable of filtering frames based on any Layer 2 fields. For example, a
switch can be programmed to reject (not forward) all frames sourced from a particular
network. Because link layer information often includes a reference to an upper-layer
protocol, switches usually can filter on this parameter. Furthermore, filters can be helpful
in dealing with unnecessary broadcast and multicast packets.
QUESTION 7:
CDP is being used throughout the Certkiller network. What are two reasons why the
Certkiller network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two)
A. To determine the status of network services on a remote device
B. To obtain the IP Address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
C. To verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
D. To verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. To obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
F. To determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
G. To support automatic network failover during outages
Answer: B, D

Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help
administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By
using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices,
which is useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.
You can use:
Show cdp neighbor
Show cdp neighbor details
Commands to gather the information of connected neighbors.
QUESTION 8:
CDP is running between two Certkiller devices. What information is supplied by
CDP? (Select three)
A. Device Identifiers
B. Capabilities list
C. Platform
D. Route identifier
E. Neighbor traffic data
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
QUESTION 9:
Two Certkiller offices are connected as shown below:

Two buildings on the London campus of a the Certkiller corporation must be
connected to use Ethernet with a bandwidth of at least 100 Mbps. Certkiller is
concerned about possible problems from voltage potential differences between the
two buildings. Which media type should be used for the connection?
A. Coaxial cable
B. Fiber optic cable
C. UTP cable
D. STP cable
E. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
Current Ethernet technology typically comes via either copper UTP or fiber cables. In
this scenario the distance between the buildings is only 55 meters so either copper or
fiber could be used, as the distance limitation for 100M UTP Ethernet is 100 meters.
However, fiber would be a better fit as it is not prone to errors that could occur due to the
voltage potential differences. Because fiber is a dielectric material, it’s not susceptible to
electrical interference. FO-product vendors also claim that fiber systems make secure
communications easier. Interference immunity and lack of emissions are givens in FO
systems and in the fiber medium itself.
QUESTION 10:
Refer to the Certkiller network shown below:
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit
carefully. Based on the information shown above, what is needed to allow host
Certkiller 1 to ping host Certkiller 2?

A. A crossover cable connecting the switches
B. A backbone switch connecting the switches with either fiber optic or straight-through
cables
C. A straight-through cable connecting the switches
D. A CSU/DSU connected to the switches with straight-through cables
E. A router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
Answer: E
Explanation:
Routers are Layers 3 devices used for inter-network communication. In this scenario
there are two different networks, so both switches need to connect to a router using
straight-through cables.
A straight-through cable is used to connect two different devices like, switch to router,
host to switch. Since we need to insert a router for communication between the two
switches, straight through cables will be used between the switches and the router.
QUESTION 11:
Exhibit:
A new Certkiller office is opening, and a network device needs to be installed in the
place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line T1 to the
Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum
requirements for this installation?
A. A switch with two Ethernet interfaces
B. A router with two Ethernet interfaces
C. A switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. A router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. A router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
F. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:

Only a router can terminate a leased line T1 access circuit, and only a router can connect
two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial
connection for the T1 and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN.
QUESTION 12:
As a CCNA candidate, you must know the various layers of the OSI model. At
which layers of the OSI Model do Wide Area Networks operate in? (Choose two)
A. Physical Layer
B. Datalink Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Session Layer
E. Transport Layer
F. Presentation Layer
G. Application Layer
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
A WAN is a data communications network that covers a relatively broad geographic area
and that often uses transmission facilities provided by common carriers, such as
telephone companies. WAN technologies generally function at the lower two layers of
the OSI reference model: the physical layer and the data link layer as shown below.
Note:
Occasionally WAN’s would also be considered to operate at layer 3, but since this
question asked for only 2 choices layers 1 and 2 are better choices.

QUESTION 13:
While troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the network, you issue the ping
command from your PC command prompt, but the output shows “request times
out.”
At which OSI layer is this problem associated with?
A. The data link layer
B. The application layer
C. The access layer
D. The session layer
E. The network layer
Answer: E
Explanation:
TCP/IP includes ICMP, a protocol designed to help manage and control the operation of
a TCP/IP network. The ICMP protocol provides a wide variety of information about a
network’s health and operational status. Control message is the most descriptive part of a
name. ICMP helps control and manage IP’s work and therefore is considered part of
TCP/IP’s network layer.
Reference:
CCNA Self-Study CCNA ICND exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN
1-58720-083-X) page 277.
QUESTION 14:
You download a file from an FTP site on the Internet. What is the highest layer in the
OSI model used in this FTP operation?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
E. Internet
F. Data Link
G. Physical
Answer: A
Explanation:
Layer 7 is the application layer, which is the highest layer in the OSI model. This layer
describes the use of end user applications, such as opening movie files (avi, mpeg, etc)
used Microsoft Office applications, using WWW browsers, using Telnet, and using FTP.

QUESTION 15:
A host computer has been correctly configured with a static IP address, but the
default gateway is incorrectly set. Which layer of the OSI model will be first
affected by this configuration error?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 5
F. Layer 6
E. Layer 7
Answer: C
Explanation:
IP Addressing and IP routing resides on the OSI Network layer, which is layer 3.
QUESTION 16:
Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for ensuring reliable
end-to-end delivery of data?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
E. Network
F. Data-Link
Answer: D
Explanation:
A key function of the transport layer is to provide connection services for the protocols
and applications that run at the levels above it. These can be categorized as either
connection-oriented services or connectionless services. Some protocol suites, such as
TCP/IP, provide both a connection-oriented and a connectionless transport layer
protocol, to suit the needs of different applications.
The transport layer is also the place in the layer stack where functions are normally
included to add features to end-to-end data transport. Where network layer protocols are
normally concerned with just “best effort” communications, where delivery is not
guaranteed. Transport layer protocols are given intelligence in the form of algorithms that

ensure that reliable and efficient communication between devices takes place. This
encompasses several related jobs, including lost transmission detection and handling, and
managing the rate at which data is sent to ensure that the receiving device is not
overwhelmed.
Transmission quality, meaning ensuring that transmissions are received as sent, is so
important that some networking references define the transport layer on the basis of
reliability and flow-control functions. However, not all transport layer protocols provide
these services. Just as a protocol suite may have a connection-oriented and a
connectionless transport layer protocol, it may also have one that provides reliability and
data management services, and one that does not. Again, this is the case with TCP/IP:
there is one main transport layer protocol; TCP, that includes reliability and flow control
features, and a second, UDP, that doesn’t.
QUESTION 17:
At which OSI layer is a logical path created between two host systems named CK1
and CK2 on the Certkiller LAN?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Data link
D. Transport
E. Network
F. Application
G. Presentation
Answer: E
Explanation:
The Network layer (also called layer 3) manages device addressing, tracks the location of
devices on the network, and determines the best way to move data, which means that the
Network layer must transport traffic between devices that aren’t locally attached. Routers
(layer 3 devices) are specified at the Network layer and provide the routing services
within an internetwork.
QUESTION 18:
Which OSI layer is associated with the following: The acknowledgement of
transmissions, sequencing, and flow control across a network?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5

E. Layer 6
F. Layer 7
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Transport layer (Layer 4) defines several functions, including the choice of
protocols. The most important Layer 4 functions are error recovery and flow control. The
transport layer may provide for retransmission, i.e., error recovery, and may use flow
control to prevent unnecessary congestion by attempting to send data at a rate that the
network can accommodate, or it might not, depending on the choice of protocols.
Multiplexing of incoming data for different flows to applications on the same host is also
performed. Reordering of the incoming data stream when packets arrive out of order is
included. Examples include: TCP, UDP, and SPX.
QUESTION 19:
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another
network?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
E. Network
F. Data link
G. Physical
Answer: E
Explanation:
Only network address contains this information. To transmit the packets the sender uses
network address and datalink address. But the layer 2 address represents just the address
of the next hop device on the way to the sender. It is changed on each hop. Network
address remains the same.
QUESTION 20:
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation
process? (Choose two)
A. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical
link.
B. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and adds reliability and flow

control information.
C. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control
information to a segment.
D. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the
segment.
E. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and
destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
Answer: B, C

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How the New Emphasis on Wireless Technology on the CCIE R&S Written Exam will affect CertZone
In January Cisco officially moved to a new blueprint for the CCIE R&S Written Exam (350-001). This new blueprint added a major category called Enterprise Wireless Mobility. Previously wireless was a single subcategory under the major category of LAN.

The sub categories under Enterprise Wireless Mobility are:
Standards
Hardware
SWAN
RF Troubleshooting
VoWLAN
Products
Certification Zone has previously published two Study Guides on the topic of wireless, so the topic should not be unfamiliar to subscribers who are studying for their CCIE certification.

The first wireless Study Guide was written by Dennis Laganiere. Networking Without a Net discussed the following major topics:
A description of a basic wireless network
Access points, including hot standby access points
A discussion of 802.11 protocols, the wireless LAN standards developed by IEEE
A basic discussion of radio frequency and spread spectrum
Key aspects of the site survey and wireless design
An introduction to antennas
Security and basic configuration
Basics of troubleshooting a wireless network
The second Study Guide, written by Ken Chipps, tells you How to Implement Wireless Networks. This is a “nuts-and-bolts” application paper. It starts by reviewing the basic concepts of wireless networks. Then it reviews the rules, regulations, and standards that have been implemented throughout the world. Once you’re focused on wireless networks, Ken gets you into the hardware and procedures for implementing a wireless network. But what if things don’t work? Well, the paper concludes with some basic troubleshooting.

So if subscribers have studied and used the three parts of the two previously published wireless Study Guides (tutorial, study questions, exercises), they should be well on the way to being prepared for any wireless questions that appear on the CCIE R&S exam.

However, we want you to be able to focus on the topic according to the way Cisco is describing the aspects of wireless networks, so CertZone will be developing new wireless Study Guides.

Ken Chipps is developing the first new Study Guide. He expects to complete the tutorial very soon. In this tutorial he will discuss:
Security. Wireless security and management looks like it has been collapsed into the subcategory of SWAN. In addition to SWAN, Ken will touch on fast secure roaming, WLSE, hot spots, guest access, and other security-related items.

Hardware and Products. This will be a summary of Cisco hardware that is wireless related, including access points, antennas, bridges, and NICs.

Standards. Previous CertZone tutorials have covered the major existing standards, but there are also new in-progress standards that deserve mention. These under development standards address topics such as quality of service and fast roaming.

VoWLAN. At the present time this capability is not “fully baked.” There are several issues impeding the full deployment of voice over wireless local area networks, especially delay and roaming. This tutorial will mention the Cisco equipment and quality of service provisions in the equipment that support VoWLAN.

There are many, many things that can go wrong in a wireless network, so troubleshooting is a major issue. Yes, troubleshooting is addressed in existing CertZone wireless tutorials, but more needs to be said. Not only is it a sub category on the written exam, but it’s a topic that’s important to anyone involved in an actual wireless network. Additionally, one of the benefits of good troubleshooting is that it helps you to better understand the technology itself. So CertZone expects to develop a second new wireless Study Guide focusing on wireless troubleshooting.
Cisco is soliciting beta candidates for the soon-to-be-launched Cisco CCIE Wireless Written Exam. We are looking to create a highly qualified group of professional- and expert-level Wireless Networking Engineers who are willing to dedicate three (3) hours to take the beta exam.

The CCIE Wireless certification, to be launched later this year, will validate that a professional has the expertise to design, manage, and support mission- and business-critical wireless networks, as well as the job skills and technical knowledge required of an expert-level network IT practitioner. This written exam is the first step in obtaining the CCIE Wireless certification. Successful candidates will have mastered broad theoretical knowledge of wireless networking and demonstrated a readiness for the CCIE Wireless lab examination.

Be one of the first professionals in wireless to get a peek at the new CCIE Wireless exam!

Location: Pearson VUE Testing Centers, Worldwide
Registration Date: 7-Oct-08
Last Test Date: 14-Nov-08
Cost: US$50
Exam Number/Name: 351-050 CCIE Wireless Beta Written Exam

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